Father gets chickenpox, but doesn't infect his two children. How is this possible?












2















My brother in law got chickenpox, yet somehow he didn't infect my two nephews, even though they are living together. According to wikipedia, varicella has an infection rate of 90%:




Varicella is highly communicable, with an infection rate of 90% in close contacts.




https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chickenpox



He got varicella over a week ago and the children are completely healthy, even though they have not had the disease yet nor are they vaccinated against it.



How is this possible? Is the infection rate actually lower, than 90%? Is an outcome like this usual or plausible?










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  • Adults with primary VZV infection (chickenpox syndrome) are usually VERY sick, often with interstitial pneumonia, and often require hospitalization. Are you certain he didn't have secondary VZV infection (shingles syndrome)?

    – De Novo
    2 hours ago
















2















My brother in law got chickenpox, yet somehow he didn't infect my two nephews, even though they are living together. According to wikipedia, varicella has an infection rate of 90%:




Varicella is highly communicable, with an infection rate of 90% in close contacts.




https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chickenpox



He got varicella over a week ago and the children are completely healthy, even though they have not had the disease yet nor are they vaccinated against it.



How is this possible? Is the infection rate actually lower, than 90%? Is an outcome like this usual or plausible?










share|improve this question























  • Adults with primary VZV infection (chickenpox syndrome) are usually VERY sick, often with interstitial pneumonia, and often require hospitalization. Are you certain he didn't have secondary VZV infection (shingles syndrome)?

    – De Novo
    2 hours ago














2












2








2








My brother in law got chickenpox, yet somehow he didn't infect my two nephews, even though they are living together. According to wikipedia, varicella has an infection rate of 90%:




Varicella is highly communicable, with an infection rate of 90% in close contacts.




https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chickenpox



He got varicella over a week ago and the children are completely healthy, even though they have not had the disease yet nor are they vaccinated against it.



How is this possible? Is the infection rate actually lower, than 90%? Is an outcome like this usual or plausible?










share|improve this question














My brother in law got chickenpox, yet somehow he didn't infect my two nephews, even though they are living together. According to wikipedia, varicella has an infection rate of 90%:




Varicella is highly communicable, with an infection rate of 90% in close contacts.




https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chickenpox



He got varicella over a week ago and the children are completely healthy, even though they have not had the disease yet nor are they vaccinated against it.



How is this possible? Is the infection rate actually lower, than 90%? Is an outcome like this usual or plausible?







infection vaccination virus chickenpox






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asked 3 hours ago









user1721135user1721135

2005




2005













  • Adults with primary VZV infection (chickenpox syndrome) are usually VERY sick, often with interstitial pneumonia, and often require hospitalization. Are you certain he didn't have secondary VZV infection (shingles syndrome)?

    – De Novo
    2 hours ago



















  • Adults with primary VZV infection (chickenpox syndrome) are usually VERY sick, often with interstitial pneumonia, and often require hospitalization. Are you certain he didn't have secondary VZV infection (shingles syndrome)?

    – De Novo
    2 hours ago

















Adults with primary VZV infection (chickenpox syndrome) are usually VERY sick, often with interstitial pneumonia, and often require hospitalization. Are you certain he didn't have secondary VZV infection (shingles syndrome)?

– De Novo
2 hours ago





Adults with primary VZV infection (chickenpox syndrome) are usually VERY sick, often with interstitial pneumonia, and often require hospitalization. Are you certain he didn't have secondary VZV infection (shingles syndrome)?

– De Novo
2 hours ago










2 Answers
2






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oldest

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5














If there was close contact, if the 90% rate is accurate, and if occurrence is independent in related individuals, then you would expect 0.10 * 0.10 = 1% of contacts with 2 potentially vulnerable people to result in neither person infected.



1% sounds rare, but rare events happen all the time, and 1% isn't even particularly rare. If you know 100 families, you'd expect this outcome to happen on average in 1 of them.



That's not very unusual and is clearly plausible just from the information you have at hand. As @DeNovo mentioned in a comment, it is also likely that the spread is not independent, because the children share several characteristics: they are related, so they share:




  • any genetic component to vulnerability

  • any characteristics of the father's illness such as the level of virus replicating in the father's lungs

  • perhaps the level of actual contact with the father and how well he may be effectively quarantined from the others


Those factors could make the joint probability trend towards the 10% rate for a single individual.






share|improve this answer


























  • Re: this probability answer (which makes a good and important point, +1), I'd point out that infection of child A and of child B are not independent events. So, given an infected father, while the likelihood of child A not being infected is 10% and the likelihood of child B not being infected is 10%, the likelihood of neither of them being infected is closer to 10% than 1%. As far as the mechanism is concerned, the virus may not be replicating in the fathers lungs (or replicating at a lower dose), meaning the father is less likely to transmit.

    – De Novo
    3 hours ago








  • 1





    @DeNovo Yeah, I meant my answer to be sort of a lower bound on the probability, with 1% still being a fairly common occurrence. I added a discussion of some of the likely causes for non-independence.

    – Bryan Krause
    2 hours ago



















4














To add to @BrynKrause's answer re: rare events happen all the time, the children are not out of the woods yet. The mean incubation time for a primary VZV infection (the clinical syndrome known as chicken pox) is 14 days, but often lasts up to 21 days (see Murray Medical Microbiology, Ch. 53). The father is infectious while shedding virus, usually via the lungs. This correlates with the period of time a patient is febrile. I wouldn't say the father didn't infect his children until he has been afebrile for 21 days.






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5














    If there was close contact, if the 90% rate is accurate, and if occurrence is independent in related individuals, then you would expect 0.10 * 0.10 = 1% of contacts with 2 potentially vulnerable people to result in neither person infected.



    1% sounds rare, but rare events happen all the time, and 1% isn't even particularly rare. If you know 100 families, you'd expect this outcome to happen on average in 1 of them.



    That's not very unusual and is clearly plausible just from the information you have at hand. As @DeNovo mentioned in a comment, it is also likely that the spread is not independent, because the children share several characteristics: they are related, so they share:




    • any genetic component to vulnerability

    • any characteristics of the father's illness such as the level of virus replicating in the father's lungs

    • perhaps the level of actual contact with the father and how well he may be effectively quarantined from the others


    Those factors could make the joint probability trend towards the 10% rate for a single individual.






    share|improve this answer


























    • Re: this probability answer (which makes a good and important point, +1), I'd point out that infection of child A and of child B are not independent events. So, given an infected father, while the likelihood of child A not being infected is 10% and the likelihood of child B not being infected is 10%, the likelihood of neither of them being infected is closer to 10% than 1%. As far as the mechanism is concerned, the virus may not be replicating in the fathers lungs (or replicating at a lower dose), meaning the father is less likely to transmit.

      – De Novo
      3 hours ago








    • 1





      @DeNovo Yeah, I meant my answer to be sort of a lower bound on the probability, with 1% still being a fairly common occurrence. I added a discussion of some of the likely causes for non-independence.

      – Bryan Krause
      2 hours ago
















    5














    If there was close contact, if the 90% rate is accurate, and if occurrence is independent in related individuals, then you would expect 0.10 * 0.10 = 1% of contacts with 2 potentially vulnerable people to result in neither person infected.



    1% sounds rare, but rare events happen all the time, and 1% isn't even particularly rare. If you know 100 families, you'd expect this outcome to happen on average in 1 of them.



    That's not very unusual and is clearly plausible just from the information you have at hand. As @DeNovo mentioned in a comment, it is also likely that the spread is not independent, because the children share several characteristics: they are related, so they share:




    • any genetic component to vulnerability

    • any characteristics of the father's illness such as the level of virus replicating in the father's lungs

    • perhaps the level of actual contact with the father and how well he may be effectively quarantined from the others


    Those factors could make the joint probability trend towards the 10% rate for a single individual.






    share|improve this answer


























    • Re: this probability answer (which makes a good and important point, +1), I'd point out that infection of child A and of child B are not independent events. So, given an infected father, while the likelihood of child A not being infected is 10% and the likelihood of child B not being infected is 10%, the likelihood of neither of them being infected is closer to 10% than 1%. As far as the mechanism is concerned, the virus may not be replicating in the fathers lungs (or replicating at a lower dose), meaning the father is less likely to transmit.

      – De Novo
      3 hours ago








    • 1





      @DeNovo Yeah, I meant my answer to be sort of a lower bound on the probability, with 1% still being a fairly common occurrence. I added a discussion of some of the likely causes for non-independence.

      – Bryan Krause
      2 hours ago














    5












    5








    5







    If there was close contact, if the 90% rate is accurate, and if occurrence is independent in related individuals, then you would expect 0.10 * 0.10 = 1% of contacts with 2 potentially vulnerable people to result in neither person infected.



    1% sounds rare, but rare events happen all the time, and 1% isn't even particularly rare. If you know 100 families, you'd expect this outcome to happen on average in 1 of them.



    That's not very unusual and is clearly plausible just from the information you have at hand. As @DeNovo mentioned in a comment, it is also likely that the spread is not independent, because the children share several characteristics: they are related, so they share:




    • any genetic component to vulnerability

    • any characteristics of the father's illness such as the level of virus replicating in the father's lungs

    • perhaps the level of actual contact with the father and how well he may be effectively quarantined from the others


    Those factors could make the joint probability trend towards the 10% rate for a single individual.






    share|improve this answer















    If there was close contact, if the 90% rate is accurate, and if occurrence is independent in related individuals, then you would expect 0.10 * 0.10 = 1% of contacts with 2 potentially vulnerable people to result in neither person infected.



    1% sounds rare, but rare events happen all the time, and 1% isn't even particularly rare. If you know 100 families, you'd expect this outcome to happen on average in 1 of them.



    That's not very unusual and is clearly plausible just from the information you have at hand. As @DeNovo mentioned in a comment, it is also likely that the spread is not independent, because the children share several characteristics: they are related, so they share:




    • any genetic component to vulnerability

    • any characteristics of the father's illness such as the level of virus replicating in the father's lungs

    • perhaps the level of actual contact with the father and how well he may be effectively quarantined from the others


    Those factors could make the joint probability trend towards the 10% rate for a single individual.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 2 hours ago

























    answered 3 hours ago









    Bryan KrauseBryan Krause

    1,458316




    1,458316













    • Re: this probability answer (which makes a good and important point, +1), I'd point out that infection of child A and of child B are not independent events. So, given an infected father, while the likelihood of child A not being infected is 10% and the likelihood of child B not being infected is 10%, the likelihood of neither of them being infected is closer to 10% than 1%. As far as the mechanism is concerned, the virus may not be replicating in the fathers lungs (or replicating at a lower dose), meaning the father is less likely to transmit.

      – De Novo
      3 hours ago








    • 1





      @DeNovo Yeah, I meant my answer to be sort of a lower bound on the probability, with 1% still being a fairly common occurrence. I added a discussion of some of the likely causes for non-independence.

      – Bryan Krause
      2 hours ago



















    • Re: this probability answer (which makes a good and important point, +1), I'd point out that infection of child A and of child B are not independent events. So, given an infected father, while the likelihood of child A not being infected is 10% and the likelihood of child B not being infected is 10%, the likelihood of neither of them being infected is closer to 10% than 1%. As far as the mechanism is concerned, the virus may not be replicating in the fathers lungs (or replicating at a lower dose), meaning the father is less likely to transmit.

      – De Novo
      3 hours ago








    • 1





      @DeNovo Yeah, I meant my answer to be sort of a lower bound on the probability, with 1% still being a fairly common occurrence. I added a discussion of some of the likely causes for non-independence.

      – Bryan Krause
      2 hours ago

















    Re: this probability answer (which makes a good and important point, +1), I'd point out that infection of child A and of child B are not independent events. So, given an infected father, while the likelihood of child A not being infected is 10% and the likelihood of child B not being infected is 10%, the likelihood of neither of them being infected is closer to 10% than 1%. As far as the mechanism is concerned, the virus may not be replicating in the fathers lungs (or replicating at a lower dose), meaning the father is less likely to transmit.

    – De Novo
    3 hours ago







    Re: this probability answer (which makes a good and important point, +1), I'd point out that infection of child A and of child B are not independent events. So, given an infected father, while the likelihood of child A not being infected is 10% and the likelihood of child B not being infected is 10%, the likelihood of neither of them being infected is closer to 10% than 1%. As far as the mechanism is concerned, the virus may not be replicating in the fathers lungs (or replicating at a lower dose), meaning the father is less likely to transmit.

    – De Novo
    3 hours ago






    1




    1





    @DeNovo Yeah, I meant my answer to be sort of a lower bound on the probability, with 1% still being a fairly common occurrence. I added a discussion of some of the likely causes for non-independence.

    – Bryan Krause
    2 hours ago





    @DeNovo Yeah, I meant my answer to be sort of a lower bound on the probability, with 1% still being a fairly common occurrence. I added a discussion of some of the likely causes for non-independence.

    – Bryan Krause
    2 hours ago











    4














    To add to @BrynKrause's answer re: rare events happen all the time, the children are not out of the woods yet. The mean incubation time for a primary VZV infection (the clinical syndrome known as chicken pox) is 14 days, but often lasts up to 21 days (see Murray Medical Microbiology, Ch. 53). The father is infectious while shedding virus, usually via the lungs. This correlates with the period of time a patient is febrile. I wouldn't say the father didn't infect his children until he has been afebrile for 21 days.






    share|improve this answer




























      4














      To add to @BrynKrause's answer re: rare events happen all the time, the children are not out of the woods yet. The mean incubation time for a primary VZV infection (the clinical syndrome known as chicken pox) is 14 days, but often lasts up to 21 days (see Murray Medical Microbiology, Ch. 53). The father is infectious while shedding virus, usually via the lungs. This correlates with the period of time a patient is febrile. I wouldn't say the father didn't infect his children until he has been afebrile for 21 days.






      share|improve this answer


























        4












        4








        4







        To add to @BrynKrause's answer re: rare events happen all the time, the children are not out of the woods yet. The mean incubation time for a primary VZV infection (the clinical syndrome known as chicken pox) is 14 days, but often lasts up to 21 days (see Murray Medical Microbiology, Ch. 53). The father is infectious while shedding virus, usually via the lungs. This correlates with the period of time a patient is febrile. I wouldn't say the father didn't infect his children until he has been afebrile for 21 days.






        share|improve this answer













        To add to @BrynKrause's answer re: rare events happen all the time, the children are not out of the woods yet. The mean incubation time for a primary VZV infection (the clinical syndrome known as chicken pox) is 14 days, but often lasts up to 21 days (see Murray Medical Microbiology, Ch. 53). The father is infectious while shedding virus, usually via the lungs. This correlates with the period of time a patient is febrile. I wouldn't say the father didn't infect his children until he has been afebrile for 21 days.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 2 hours ago









        De NovoDe Novo

        1,82415




        1,82415






























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