The sum of n consecutive numbers is divisible by the greatest prime factor of n.
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I facilitated the following task with pre-service math teachers:
Take the sum of any three consecutive numbers. Do you notice anything special? Write a clear conjecture. Then write a clear proof for your conjecture.
Now, take the sum of any amount of consecutive numbers. Can you broaden your conjecture from problem 1? Prove your conjecture.
I left the task open because I wanted students to create a variety of conjectures and proofs for whole class discussion. For task 2, one student came up with the following conjecture: "The sum of n consecutive integers is divisible by the greatest prime factor of n". I'm curious if anyone has a proof or counterexample for this claim as I do not.
number-theory
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I facilitated the following task with pre-service math teachers:
Take the sum of any three consecutive numbers. Do you notice anything special? Write a clear conjecture. Then write a clear proof for your conjecture.
Now, take the sum of any amount of consecutive numbers. Can you broaden your conjecture from problem 1? Prove your conjecture.
I left the task open because I wanted students to create a variety of conjectures and proofs for whole class discussion. For task 2, one student came up with the following conjecture: "The sum of n consecutive integers is divisible by the greatest prime factor of n". I'm curious if anyone has a proof or counterexample for this claim as I do not.
number-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I facilitated the following task with pre-service math teachers:
Take the sum of any three consecutive numbers. Do you notice anything special? Write a clear conjecture. Then write a clear proof for your conjecture.
Now, take the sum of any amount of consecutive numbers. Can you broaden your conjecture from problem 1? Prove your conjecture.
I left the task open because I wanted students to create a variety of conjectures and proofs for whole class discussion. For task 2, one student came up with the following conjecture: "The sum of n consecutive integers is divisible by the greatest prime factor of n". I'm curious if anyone has a proof or counterexample for this claim as I do not.
number-theory
$endgroup$
I facilitated the following task with pre-service math teachers:
Take the sum of any three consecutive numbers. Do you notice anything special? Write a clear conjecture. Then write a clear proof for your conjecture.
Now, take the sum of any amount of consecutive numbers. Can you broaden your conjecture from problem 1? Prove your conjecture.
I left the task open because I wanted students to create a variety of conjectures and proofs for whole class discussion. For task 2, one student came up with the following conjecture: "The sum of n consecutive integers is divisible by the greatest prime factor of n". I'm curious if anyone has a proof or counterexample for this claim as I do not.
number-theory
number-theory
asked 51 mins ago
MathGuyMathGuy
908315
908315
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add a comment |
3 Answers
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active
oldest
votes
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This is an excellent conjecture. It is not quite true, as it fails for $n=2$. The sum of two consecutive numbers is odd. We can say more. The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers is divisible by $n$ if $n$ is odd and by $frac n2$ if $n$ is even. This implies the student's conjecture for $n gt 2$.
To see this, reduce all the numbers $bmod n$. We will then have one each congruent to $0,1,2,ldots n-1 bmod n$. The sum of the numbers from $0$ to $n-1$ is $frac 12(n-1)n$, which is divisible by $n$ or $frac n2$ as required.
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If $n=2$ the statement is false. Let's look at $n>2$.
The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers starting with $a$ is
$$
z=frac{n}{2}(2a+n-1)
$$
If $n$ is even, $n/2$ is an integer containing the largest prime factor of $n$, hence $z$ is divisible by that prime factor.
If $n$ is odd, $2a-1+n$ is even and $(2a+n-1)/2$ is an integer. Therefore $z$ is divisible by $n$ and by all of its prime factors.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If the first of the $n$ summands is $m+1$, then the sum is
$$(m+1)+(m+2)+ldots+(m+n)=nm+1+2+ldots+n=nm+frac{n(n+1)}{2}. $$
- If $n$ is odd, say $n=2k-1$, this is even a multiple of $n$, namely $ncdot(m+k)$. Then even more so, it is a multiple of e.g. the largest prime divisor of $n$.
- If $n$ is even, say $n=2k$, then it is at least a multiple of $k$, namely $kcdot(m+n+1)$. This is still a multiple of the largest prime divisor of $n$, unless $k=1$.
Hence the conjecture fails only for $n=2$ (and is meaningless for $n=1$).
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add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is an excellent conjecture. It is not quite true, as it fails for $n=2$. The sum of two consecutive numbers is odd. We can say more. The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers is divisible by $n$ if $n$ is odd and by $frac n2$ if $n$ is even. This implies the student's conjecture for $n gt 2$.
To see this, reduce all the numbers $bmod n$. We will then have one each congruent to $0,1,2,ldots n-1 bmod n$. The sum of the numbers from $0$ to $n-1$ is $frac 12(n-1)n$, which is divisible by $n$ or $frac n2$ as required.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is an excellent conjecture. It is not quite true, as it fails for $n=2$. The sum of two consecutive numbers is odd. We can say more. The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers is divisible by $n$ if $n$ is odd and by $frac n2$ if $n$ is even. This implies the student's conjecture for $n gt 2$.
To see this, reduce all the numbers $bmod n$. We will then have one each congruent to $0,1,2,ldots n-1 bmod n$. The sum of the numbers from $0$ to $n-1$ is $frac 12(n-1)n$, which is divisible by $n$ or $frac n2$ as required.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is an excellent conjecture. It is not quite true, as it fails for $n=2$. The sum of two consecutive numbers is odd. We can say more. The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers is divisible by $n$ if $n$ is odd and by $frac n2$ if $n$ is even. This implies the student's conjecture for $n gt 2$.
To see this, reduce all the numbers $bmod n$. We will then have one each congruent to $0,1,2,ldots n-1 bmod n$. The sum of the numbers from $0$ to $n-1$ is $frac 12(n-1)n$, which is divisible by $n$ or $frac n2$ as required.
$endgroup$
This is an excellent conjecture. It is not quite true, as it fails for $n=2$. The sum of two consecutive numbers is odd. We can say more. The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers is divisible by $n$ if $n$ is odd and by $frac n2$ if $n$ is even. This implies the student's conjecture for $n gt 2$.
To see this, reduce all the numbers $bmod n$. We will then have one each congruent to $0,1,2,ldots n-1 bmod n$. The sum of the numbers from $0$ to $n-1$ is $frac 12(n-1)n$, which is divisible by $n$ or $frac n2$ as required.
answered 40 mins ago
Ross MillikanRoss Millikan
296k23198371
296k23198371
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $n=2$ the statement is false. Let's look at $n>2$.
The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers starting with $a$ is
$$
z=frac{n}{2}(2a+n-1)
$$
If $n$ is even, $n/2$ is an integer containing the largest prime factor of $n$, hence $z$ is divisible by that prime factor.
If $n$ is odd, $2a-1+n$ is even and $(2a+n-1)/2$ is an integer. Therefore $z$ is divisible by $n$ and by all of its prime factors.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $n=2$ the statement is false. Let's look at $n>2$.
The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers starting with $a$ is
$$
z=frac{n}{2}(2a+n-1)
$$
If $n$ is even, $n/2$ is an integer containing the largest prime factor of $n$, hence $z$ is divisible by that prime factor.
If $n$ is odd, $2a-1+n$ is even and $(2a+n-1)/2$ is an integer. Therefore $z$ is divisible by $n$ and by all of its prime factors.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $n=2$ the statement is false. Let's look at $n>2$.
The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers starting with $a$ is
$$
z=frac{n}{2}(2a+n-1)
$$
If $n$ is even, $n/2$ is an integer containing the largest prime factor of $n$, hence $z$ is divisible by that prime factor.
If $n$ is odd, $2a-1+n$ is even and $(2a+n-1)/2$ is an integer. Therefore $z$ is divisible by $n$ and by all of its prime factors.
$endgroup$
If $n=2$ the statement is false. Let's look at $n>2$.
The sum of $n$ consecutive numbers starting with $a$ is
$$
z=frac{n}{2}(2a+n-1)
$$
If $n$ is even, $n/2$ is an integer containing the largest prime factor of $n$, hence $z$ is divisible by that prime factor.
If $n$ is odd, $2a-1+n$ is even and $(2a+n-1)/2$ is an integer. Therefore $z$ is divisible by $n$ and by all of its prime factors.
answered 32 mins ago
GReyesGReyes
1,23915
1,23915
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If the first of the $n$ summands is $m+1$, then the sum is
$$(m+1)+(m+2)+ldots+(m+n)=nm+1+2+ldots+n=nm+frac{n(n+1)}{2}. $$
- If $n$ is odd, say $n=2k-1$, this is even a multiple of $n$, namely $ncdot(m+k)$. Then even more so, it is a multiple of e.g. the largest prime divisor of $n$.
- If $n$ is even, say $n=2k$, then it is at least a multiple of $k$, namely $kcdot(m+n+1)$. This is still a multiple of the largest prime divisor of $n$, unless $k=1$.
Hence the conjecture fails only for $n=2$ (and is meaningless for $n=1$).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If the first of the $n$ summands is $m+1$, then the sum is
$$(m+1)+(m+2)+ldots+(m+n)=nm+1+2+ldots+n=nm+frac{n(n+1)}{2}. $$
- If $n$ is odd, say $n=2k-1$, this is even a multiple of $n$, namely $ncdot(m+k)$. Then even more so, it is a multiple of e.g. the largest prime divisor of $n$.
- If $n$ is even, say $n=2k$, then it is at least a multiple of $k$, namely $kcdot(m+n+1)$. This is still a multiple of the largest prime divisor of $n$, unless $k=1$.
Hence the conjecture fails only for $n=2$ (and is meaningless for $n=1$).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If the first of the $n$ summands is $m+1$, then the sum is
$$(m+1)+(m+2)+ldots+(m+n)=nm+1+2+ldots+n=nm+frac{n(n+1)}{2}. $$
- If $n$ is odd, say $n=2k-1$, this is even a multiple of $n$, namely $ncdot(m+k)$. Then even more so, it is a multiple of e.g. the largest prime divisor of $n$.
- If $n$ is even, say $n=2k$, then it is at least a multiple of $k$, namely $kcdot(m+n+1)$. This is still a multiple of the largest prime divisor of $n$, unless $k=1$.
Hence the conjecture fails only for $n=2$ (and is meaningless for $n=1$).
$endgroup$
If the first of the $n$ summands is $m+1$, then the sum is
$$(m+1)+(m+2)+ldots+(m+n)=nm+1+2+ldots+n=nm+frac{n(n+1)}{2}. $$
- If $n$ is odd, say $n=2k-1$, this is even a multiple of $n$, namely $ncdot(m+k)$. Then even more so, it is a multiple of e.g. the largest prime divisor of $n$.
- If $n$ is even, say $n=2k$, then it is at least a multiple of $k$, namely $kcdot(m+n+1)$. This is still a multiple of the largest prime divisor of $n$, unless $k=1$.
Hence the conjecture fails only for $n=2$ (and is meaningless for $n=1$).
answered 31 mins ago
Hagen von EitzenHagen von Eitzen
279k23271503
279k23271503
add a comment |
add a comment |
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